Practice AIBE XVII (2023) Previous Year Questions with correct answers and explanations. Read Questions 1–25 from the All India Bar Examination and boost your preparation.

If you are preparing for the All India Bar Examination (AIBE), solving Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the smartest ways to improve your preparation. AIBE XVII (2023) included questions from Constitutional Law, IPC, CrPC, and other important legal subjects that are frequently tested in the examination. In this article, we have provided Questions 1 to 25 along with correct answers and short explanations to help candidates revise important legal concepts quickly before the exam.

The purpose of this solved paper is not only to provide answers but also to help law graduates understand the reasoning behind each question. Make sure to read the explanations carefully and note down important sections, articles, and landmark cases for quick revision.

Table of Contents

AIBE XVII (2023) Solved Paper with Answers & Explanations – Questions 1 to 25

The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) is an important certification exam for law graduates in India. Solving Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the exam pattern, identify frequently asked topics, and improve accuracy.

In this article, we have covered Questions 1 to 25 from the AIBE XVII Examination conducted on 5 February 2023, along with correct answers and short explanations.

Q1. In which Article is the title of the Constitution of India provided?

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 5

(d) Article 393

Answer: (d) Article 393

Explanation: Article 393 provides the short title of the Constitution, namely “The Constitution of India”.

Q2. In which Part of the Constitution are Fundamental Rights provided?

(a) Part I

(b) Part II

(d) Part IV

Answer: (c) Part III

Explanation: Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12–35).

Q3. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the Anti-Defection Law in 1985?

(a) 51st Constitutional Amendment

(b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment

(d) 54th Constitutional Amendment

Answer: (b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment

Explanation: The Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) was inserted through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.

Q4. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that a Constitutional Amendment is “law” under Article 13(2)?

(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(d) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

Answer: (d) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

Explanation: In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court held that Constitutional Amendments fall within the meaning of “law” under Article 13.

Q5. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India is included under:

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Constitutional Rights

Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation: Article 44 of the Constitution provides for the Uniform Civil Code under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

Q6. According to Article 16, discrimination in public employment cannot be made on the grounds of:

Answer: (a) Religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence

Explanation: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Q7. What is the minimum number of judges required to hear a substantial constitutional question?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 5

Answer: (d) 5

Explanation: A Constitutional Bench of at least five judges is required to decide substantial questions relating to the interpretation of the Constitution.

Q8. Under Article 300A of the Constitution, who can be deprived of property only by authority of law?

(a) Person

(b) Citizen

(d) Resident

Answer: (b) Citizen

Explanation: Article 300A protects the constitutional right to property and requires authority of law for deprivation.

Q9. Under Article 13, which of the following is NOT included within the definition of “law”?

Answer: Question Deleted by AIBE

Explanation: This question was later withdrawn due to ambiguity regarding the scope of Article 13.

Q10. The Union List, State List, and Concurrent List are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?

(a) Seventh Schedule

(b) Tenth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (a) Seventh Schedule

Explanation: The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States.

Q11. Under Sections 82 and 83 of the IPC, an offence committed by a child is punishable if:

Answer: (b)

Explanation: A child above seven years but below twelve years may be criminally liable if he or she has attained sufficient maturity of understanding.

Q12. What are the two essential elements of criminal liability?

(a) Guilty body and lawful act

(b) Guilty intention and wrongful motive

(d) Guilty motive and unlawful act

Answer: (c) Guilty mind and unlawful act

Explanation: Criminal liability generally requires Mens Rea (guilty mind) and Actus Reus (guilty act).

Q13. The Right of Private Defence is provided under which sections of the IPC?

(a) Sections 74–84

(b) Sections 96–106

(d) Sections 141–160

Answer: (b) Sections 96–106

Explanation: The Right of Private Defence is covered under Sections 96 to 106 of the IPC.

Q14. Under Section 90 IPC, consent is not valid if it is given:

(a) Under fear or misconception

(b) By a person of unsound mind

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: Section 90 IPC defines circumstances in which consent is not considered valid in law.

Q15. Under which provision is causing the death of a child in the mother’s womb not considered culpable homicide?

Answer: (b) Explanation III to Section 299 IPC

Explanation: Explanation III to Section 299 clarifies this legal position.

Q16. What is the maximum punishment for defamation under the IPC?

(a) 2 years

(b) 3 years

(d) 5 years

Answer: (a) 2 years

Explanation: Section 500 IPC provides imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both.

Q17. Assault with intent to outrage the modesty of a woman is:

Answer: (d) Non-cognizable and non-bailable

Q18. If A threatens to shoot Z if Z attempts to leave a building, A is guilty of:

Answer: (a) Wrongful Restraint

Q19. Plea Bargaining provisions do not apply when the offence is committed against a child below:

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(d) 18 years

Answer: (d) 18 years

Q20. Section 125 CrPC dealing with maintenance is associated with which famous case?

(a) Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh

(b) Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar

(d) Selvi v. State of Karnataka

Answer: (c) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

Q21. Summary Trial powers may be exercised by:

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: Different classes of Magistrates may conduct summary trials under the provisions of CrPC.

Q22. Which sections of the CrPC relate to processes for compelling appearance?

Answer: (a) Sections 61–90

Q23. A police officer may arrest without warrant in the case of:

(a) Non-cognizable offence

(b) Cognizable offence

(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Cognizable offence

Q24. In a summons case instituted upon complaint, if the complainant is absent:

Answer: (c) The Magistrate may acquit or discharge the accused depending on the facts and circumstances of the case.

Q25. If an FIR is not registered by the Station House Officer (SHO), what remedy is available to the complainant?

(a) Approach the Superintendent of Police

(b) File a private complaint before the Magistrate

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: The complainant may approach the Superintendent of Police under Section 154(3) CrPC or file a complaint before the Magistrate.

Conclusion

The first 25 questions of AIBE XVII (2023) cover important topics from Constitutional Law, IPC, and Criminal Procedure. Candidates should revise these questions thoroughly because similar concepts are frequently tested in the AIBE examination.

Stay connected for Part 2 (Questions 26–50) with detailed answers and explanations.

AIBE XVII Solved Paper with Answers & Explanations – Questions 1 to 25